Sale leaseback rent is set by the seller, and that should bother the buyer.
A structure worth examining closely: the sale leasebacks that come out of an operator refinancing after an acquisition. In these, the seller tenant chooses the rent, which sets the cap, which sets the price they receive. Take a 20 year absolute net at $18.75 a foot on an industrial flex box where the market for a vacant equivalent sits closer to $11. The buyer is being handed a 7.1% cap on rent that runs 70% above market, and the credit is a non rated operator with a sponsor behind it. The lease term is long enough that nobody has to confront any of it for years. Structurally this looks like buying an above market rent stream dressed as a real estate cap rate, and the residual is where the difference gets paid back. How do others underwrite the gap, and does a rent coverage test do any real work here or does it just make the file look thicker?