Conditional use permits for parking lots are disappearing in some markets, and I want to know what happens to cap rates when the zoning changes.
A surface lot in a city that has started eliminating parking minimums is not the same underwriting problem as one in a market where zoning treats parking as a protected use. The income story stays the same in year one either way, but the reversionary risk is completely different. When a municipality removes the minimum parking requirement, developers no longer need to buy or lease nearby parking to satisfy a code condition, and that removes one of the cleaner demand floors that parking underwriters lean on. The cap rate on acquisition should, in theory, reflect that, but I have watched listings in affected markets price as though the zoning shift had not happened at all, with trailing twelve month income doing the full work and no discount for the thinner future demand base. The question underneath the cap rate is whether the land exit still works if the income story compresses. In a market where parking minimums are gone, the parcel may still have high land value as a development site, which pulls the two arguments in opposite directions: the income approach says the asset got riskier, but the land approach says the site got freer to develop. Those two numbers can diverge by enough to change whether the deal makes sense, and which one a lender will accept as the basis for a loan matters a lot on the debt side. What market are you buying in, and has the municipality already passed the reform or is it still in the proposal stage, because the pricing difference between those two moments is real?