When a value comes in below contract on a multifamily, how much does the appraiser's choice of GRM versus direct capitalization actually move the number?
I have been thinking about this because the two methods can produce meaningfully different conclusions on the same property, and the appraiser's selection is rarely explained in the report beyond a sentence saying one approach was given more weight. On a six unit building with gross rents of $72,000, a GRM of 9 gives you $648,000. If the same building has a 35 percent expense ratio and the appraiser applies a 7.5 cap to the resulting NOI of $46,800, you land at $624,000. That is a $24,000 gap from a methodological choice, and neither figure is wrong on its face. The spread widens if the expense assumption shifts even slightly, because the cap rate approach forces the appraiser to estimate expenses where GRM sidesteps that entirely. When vacancy and management are thin or contested, GRM can look more defensible to a reviewer even if it masks operating reality. When expenses are well documented and the buyer is a commercial lender, direct cap tends to dominate. What I am genuinely uncertain about is how often appraisers on small multifamily assignments, say two to eight units, default to GRM because the expense data is sparse, and whether that default is helping or hurting buyers trying to challenge a low value. Has anyone requested a reconsideration on a small multifamily and actually gotten the appraiser to shift methods, or does the response almost always defend the original approach on procedural grounds?