Agreement says I owe a fee on properties I buy at trustee sale. Do people actually strike that?
I'm mostly on the paper side and still working out what I'm doing, so bear with the framing. I've got an agent lined up because I want to buy two or three actual houses instead of only notes, and the exclusive agreement she sent has this in the compensation section:
"Buyer agrees compensation is due on any acquisition of real property within the Territory during the Term, including acquisitions by assignment, at public sale, through foreclosure or trustee's sale, or by deed in lieu, whether or not Broker participated in the transaction."
That is broad enough to cover the thing I actually already do. Two of the notes I hold are performing but one is on a house I'd be glad to end up owning, and if that one ever goes to sale and I take title as the beneficiary bidding my own debt, this clause reads as if I owe 3% of something. Of what, I don't even know. My credit bid? The market value?
So my questions. First, is this language common in investor buyer agreements or did somebody's brokerage build a wide net on purpose? Second, if I ask her to strike acquisitions where I'm the existing lienholder, is that a normal request or does it make me look like a problem client on day one? Third, and this is the part I keep going in circles on, if I do end up owing a fee on a property I took back through my own note, is that a cost of acquiring the property or a business expense, because those go to different places on my books.
Term is twelve months, territory is a whole metro, and she's already sent me one thing worth looking at.