A buyer I work with spotted a deferred maintenance flag I had missed and it turned out to be the assignment.
The deal was a 16-unit in a secondary Midwest market, asking price of 1.1 million, gross rents on the seller's sheet at $14,400 a month. On the surface it underwrote to a 7.1 cap using the seller's expense ratio of 35 percent, which is where I stopped looking harder than I should have. I sent it out and got one callback, from a buyer who had done two other deals in that submarket. He asked me one question: what is the roof situation on buildings three and four. I had no answer. He had driven the asset before calling me back, and he told me flat roofs on those two buildings were showing ponding and the gutters had pulled away from the fascia on the east side. His roofer gave him a verbal of $60,000 to $80,000 to do it right. He reran the deal at a 6.4 cap to account for the capex reserve he would need to carry, dropped his max offer by $95,000, and I had to go back to the seller and have a conversation I was not ready to have because I had not built that into my tie-up. The seller came down $70,000, I cut my fee from $40,000 to $22,000 to close the gap, and it closed. The buyer got the building at a price that made sense for the actual condition. I got less than half of what I had planned on. The number that did the work was not the cap rate, it was the deferred maintenance the cap rate had no way of showing because expense ratios do not include capex the seller has been deferring for four years. When you are underwriting small commercial and the seller's expense ratio is under 40 percent on an older building, what is your move before you go to market?