My only real buyer for this office building just went asset-selective
I've been circling one property for four months and I finally have it under contract, so now I get to find out what I actually don't know.
52,000 square foot suburban office, three stories, built late 80s, one elevator. Currently 41 percent leased across seven tenants. Two of those leases roll inside 14 months and one is the anchor at 11,000 feet. Seller is an estate, three heirs, one lives out of state and wants cash. Contract price 2.35m, which is about 45 a foot. My fee target is 90k.
What I have: in-place NOI of roughly 141k on collected income of about 610k. Trailing 12 expenses are real, I got tax bills and the insurance dec page. Taxes 118k, insurance 41k, utilities 96k (landlord pays common area and most tenants are gross), management 5 percent, and a maintenance line that's been running 71k because the parking lot is failing.
What I don't have: a buyer. I had two. One does value-add office and just told me his lender pulled back on anything under 60 percent occupancy and he's moved to industrial. The other wants it at a 10.5 cap on in-place, which puts him at about 1.34m and he isn't moving.
The seller gave me 45 days and 21 are gone. Earnest is 25k, non-refundable after day 30.
The question I'm sitting with is whether this is a price problem or a buyer-type problem. At 2.35m I'm at a 6 cap on in-place income, which is absurd for half-empty 80s office. The re-tenanting story is the only thing that makes it work and I can't underwrite that credibly for someone else. Do I go back to the heirs at something like 1.6 and risk the whole thing, or do I go find a different kind of buyer, and if so, who buys this?