The broker is paid differently on each of my three term sheets
12 units, small market, all two bedrooms, in place NOI 118k after a 5% vacancy and 250 per unit per year reserves. Current bridge loan matures in five months at 9.1% IO and I need out of it.
Broker came back with three:
A. Agency small balance. 6.35%, 30 year amortization, 5 year fixed, step down prepay 5-4-3-2-1, 1.05M proceeds at a 1.25 DSCR constraint. Broker comp is borrower-paid, 1% of loan.
B. Local credit union. 6.60%, 20 year amortization, 5 year fixed, yield maintenance prepay, 980k proceeds. Broker comp is borrower-paid, 1%.
C. Debt fund. 7.40%, interest only, 3 year term, 1% exit fee, 1.15M proceeds. Broker comp is lender-paid and he says it costs me nothing.
My model says A wins on total cost over five years by roughly 90k against C, and C wins on proceeds by 100k today. B loses on both and I only keep it in the running because the credit union is fifteen minutes away and I might want them later.
What's bothering me is C. He presented it last and with the most enthusiasm, and it's the one where I don't see what he's paid. "Costs you nothing" is doing a lot of work in that sentence. I asked for the number and got a friendly non-answer about how the fund handles comp internally.
My plan was A. Then I noticed the debt service on A at 1.05M and 6.35% over 30 years is about 78.3k, which is a 1.51 DSCR, well above the 1.25 constraint they quoted, so either the proceeds are being held back by something else or their underwriting NOI is a lot lower than mine.
What's the second constraint I'm not seeing, and how hard should I push on the C comp question before it becomes a problem with the broker.