The tenant improvement allowance the landlord agreed to fund is sitting in the lease as a rent abatement credit, and I want to know how that reads at sale.
The scenario worth thinking through: a franchisee signs a fifteen-year NNN, base rent at $120k annually, but the landlord funded $200k in TI at lease commencement and structured the recovery as a rent credit across years one through three, so the actual cash collected in year one is $53k. When the owner lists the property at year four, every year remaining pays full freight, the abatement period is behind them, and the in-place rent looks clean. A buyer running a cap rate on trailing twelve months sees $120k. The TI cost has not gone anywhere, it is just buried in the history.
The part that matters for underwriting is whether that TI was a true economic concession or a market-rate build-out. If the tenant could not have signed without it and the rent was set to recover it, the $120k is not a clean yield figure, it is a yield figure that already paid back the landlord's construction loan to the tenant. A buyer who does not re-underwrite the all-in basis from day one overpays for what is functionally a shorter effective term of real return.
The question I have for the room is about disclosure. When you are buying a NNN asset where the abatement period has already burned off, what does the offering memorandum typically show you, full lease rent or a schedule that includes what years one through three actually collected? I have seen deals where that schedule appears nowhere in the package and you find it in the lease exhibit only if you read every page.