When a performing note has a balloon and the borrower clearly cannot refinance, do you price to the balloon or to an assumed extension?
I keep coming back to a specific situation: a loan with 60 months left to balloon, clean payment history, 7.5% note rate, and a borrower whose credit profile makes conventional refinancing unlikely at today's rates. The yield to the balloon date looks fine. The yield if the seller agrees to extend rather than foreclose, which is what most sellers in this position actually do, compresses badly because you are collecting that below-market coupon for however many additional months the extension runs. The two numbers can be two full percentage points apart depending on how long the extension goes. So the question is which number a buyer should actually trust when pricing the bid, and whether the extension scenario is even modelable without knowing whether the note gives the holder discretion to modify or requires consent. What does the note say about who controls that decision, and have you ever seen a seller disclose it before you asked?