Would you put money in the deal if there were no tax break at all?
Someone said that to me in a comment thread and it's been rattling around since. I mostly read notes and paper and I'm still mostly confused, so treat this as a beginner asking.
The setup as I understand it. You have a capital gain from selling something. You put that gain into a qualified opportunity fund inside a set window, the fund builds or rehabs inside a designated zone, and you get tax deferral now plus, if you hold long enough, the appreciation on the new investment can escape tax. The law made this permanent last year, so the old expiration pressure is gone.
This is where I split. One view says the tax treatment is a discount on your entry, so the correct screen is to underwrite the deal on its own merits, and if you wouldn't buy it without the tax break you shouldn't buy it with one. Clean, and I like clean rules.
The other view says that's too pure. The whole point of the incentive is to make marginal projects in overlooked places pencil. If a deal only works because of the tax treatment, that's the program working as designed, not a red flag. A zone is designated because capital wasn't going there on its own.
I can't tell if the second view is real or if it's how people talk themselves into weak deals. Two funds I've looked at read very differently depending on which lens I use.
Which screen would you apply to a QOF deal?
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