Same buyer and same house, so does the bigger down payment or the bigger coupon win
Here is a structuring question that comes up on nearly every seller carry, laid out with numbers so the tradeoff is visible. Take a 1970s three bedroom in a decent second-ring suburb, priced at 400k. The buyer is self-employed with two years of returns that no bank will read charitably, and he has roughly 80k of real cash plus a little reserve he does not want to touch. First shape: 80k down, 320k note at 7.25%, 30 year amortization, 5 year balloon. LTV at creation is 80%, the coupon is unremarkable, and if the paper is ever sold, the buyer of it is looking at a modest yield behind a thick equity cushion. Second shape: 45k down, 355k note at 9.5%, same amortization and balloon, and the borrower keeps 35k in the bank. LTV lands near 89%. Cash yield on the carried balance is materially better and the note throws off maybe 900 more a month in interest early on. The argument for the first is that equity in the borrower's hands is the only thing that has ever kept anyone paying in a bad year. The argument for the second is that coupon is what a capital provider actually gets paid for, and a borrower with liquid reserves survives a broken furnace better than a borrower who wired everything at closing. Note buyers price the first one much closer to par, though that only matters to a holder who intends to sell. Which constraint would the room optimize against here?
Same buyer, same house, one pot of cash. Which do you take?
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