Same buyer, same house: bigger down payment or bigger coupon?
I'm about to carry on a 1970s three bedroom in a decent second-ring suburb, priced at 400k. Buyer is self-employed, two years of returns that no bank will read charitably, and he has roughly 80k of real cash plus a little reserve he doesn't want to touch.
So there are two shapes I keep sketching. First: 80k down, 320k note at 7.25%, 30 year amortization, 5 year balloon. LTV at creation is 80%, coupon is unremarkable, and if I ever sell the paper the buyer of it is looking at a modest yield and a thick equity cushion.
Second: 45k down, 355k note at 9.5%, same amortization and balloon, and he keeps 35k in the bank. LTV lands near 89%. Cash yield on my carried balance is materially better and the note throws off maybe 900 more a month in interest early on.
The argument for the first is that equity in the borrower's hands is the only thing that has ever kept anyone paying me in a bad year. The argument for the second is that coupon is what I actually get paid for, and a borrower with liquid reserves survives a broken furnace better than a borrower who wired everything at closing.
Note buyers I've talked to price the first one much closer to par. But I don't have to sell it.
Which constraint would you optimize against here?
Same buyer, same house, one pot of cash. Which do you take?
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