Is a redeemed lien actually a fixed-income position or am I fooling myself
I put $6,200 into certificates last year across two counties and every single one redeemed inside eleven months. The interest came in at the statutory rate for those states, which was fine, and I never touched a property.
So now I'm sitting here trying to decide what this actually is. One way to see it is lending. I hand the county the delinquent taxes, the statute sets what I earn back, and the owner pays me off. That's a bond with a lien attached and I should compare it to other places I park cash.
The other way to see it, which is how half the people I talk to describe it, is a cheap option on real estate. Most redeem, sure, but the one that doesn't is where the money is, and if you think that way you underwrite every parcel as if you'll own it.
Those two framings lead to completely different behavior. If it's lending I bid on anything with a clean-ish payer profile and I don't care much what the structure looks like. If it's an option on the dirt I skip half the list because I'd never want the parcel, and I accept a lower rate on the ones I would want.
I don't think it can be both without one of them being the thing you actually do. Curious where the room lands. Also aware that redemption periods and rates vary state to state, so my eleven months isn't anybody else's number.
Which framing do you actually operate on?
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