Does a consultant need to have owned the thing they're advising on
I've been circling two people for a paid scope on a 12 unit I'm underwriting, and they're opposites.
The first has operated around 300 units over fifteen years, mostly older brick walkups in secondary midwest markets. He charges $300 an hour, wouldn't send a work plan, and on the intro call he told me my repair number was low by about 40 percent because of what he called the second winter, meaning the things that surface after your first heating season. That was a specific, useful correction and it came out of him in about nine seconds.
The second has never owned a unit. She spent eight years doing acquisitions analysis inside a mid-size shop, she has a rent comp process I could actually follow, and she sent a two page scope with deliverables and a fixed $2,800 fee. Her sample deliverable had a sensitivity table that made me realize my whole thesis rests on hitting $1,450 rents in a submarket where the third quartile is $1,320.
The case for the operator is that judgment is built out of consequences. He has paid for his own mistakes and that's what I'm buying. The case for the analyst is that ownership doesn't transfer. His 300 units were bought in different conditions with different debt, and pattern-matching from that can be worse than a clean model, because it feels like certainty.
What I keep running into is that both of them found a real hole in my numbers, and neither hole was the one the other found. So maybe the question is scope-dependent and I'm asking it wrong.
Where does credibility actually come from for you when you're the one writing the check?
When you hire a real estate consultant, what earns the fee?
19 votes