Does being on the road three weeks a month break the owner occupancy requirement on a house hack?
Here is a scenario worth working through. A buyer is closing on a two-unit property with an owner-occupied loan and the loan officer keeps using the phrase principal residence. The buyer's job has them out of state most weeks, sleeping in hotels, and they would genuinely be in the unit maybe eight nights a month. One forum answer says the rule is 51 percent of nights, which does not appear in writing anywhere. Another says it simply means the buyer does not own another house they call home. Those are very different standards, and nobody should sign an occupancy certification they are already failing on day one without knowing it. Which reading is right, and what does the lender actually look at?