Fix the purchase price now, or agree to an appraisal at the end?
Still working out which strategy fits me and lease options keep coming back up, so I've been reading drafts people have posted here and the strike price is where they all differ. I want to understand the argument before I ever write one.
The two versions I see. Either you write a number today, say $285k, and that's the price in 24 months no matter what happens. Or you write "appraised value at exercise, minus 3%", and nobody knows the number until the end.
Case for the fixed number. The tenant-buyer can actually plan. They know what they're saving toward and they know what the loan has to be. Their future lender sees a contract price, which is simpler. And if the market runs, the tenant-buyer gets the upside, which is arguably what they're paying the option fee for in the first place.
Case for the appraisal. The owner isn't handing over two years of appreciation for a $6,000 option fee. In a flat or falling market the appraisal version keeps the deal alive, because a fixed price above value gives the tenant-buyer an obvious reason to walk and the owner loses the sale they were trying to arrange. Someone in another thread pointed out that a fixed strike above appraised value pushes people into overpaying to save their credits, which doesn't feel great either.
I can also see the middle, a fixed price with an annual step, or an appraisal with a floor so the owner can't lose.
What I don't know is which of these actually gets signed in practice, and whether the answer changes depending on whether you're the owner or the tenant-buyer. Voting below, but I care more about why.
If you're writing a 24 month lease option, how do you set the strike price?
25 votes