In a lease option, should the purchase price be fixed now or set by an appraisal at the end
The strike price is where most lease option contracts diverge, and it is worth working through the argument on both sides before drafting one. One version fixes a number today, say $285k, and that is the price in twenty four months regardless of what the market does. The other writes something like appraised value at exercise, minus three percent, so nobody knows the number until the end. The case for the fixed number: the tenant buyer can actually plan, knowing what they are saving toward and what the eventual loan needs to cover. Their future lender sees a straightforward contract price, and if the market runs, the tenant buyer captures the upside, which is arguably part of what the option fee is paying for. The case for the appraisal: the owner is not handing over years of appreciation for a modest option fee. In a flat or falling market, the appraisal version keeps the deal alive, because a fixed price above value gives the tenant buyer an obvious reason to walk, costing the owner the sale they were trying to arrange. A fixed strike set above eventual appraised value can also push tenant buyers into overpaying just to avoid forfeiting accumulated credits, which is not a clean outcome either. A middle structure worth considering is a fixed price with an annual step up, or an appraisal with a floor that protects the owner's downside. Which version actually gets signed tends to depend on who is negotiating from strength, in a seller's market owners lean toward appraisal language, in a buyer's market fixed pricing is easier to get accepted.
If you're writing a 24 month lease option, how do you set the strike price?
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