If a private lender funds a live-in flip, what happens to the exclusion?
This strategy confuses most people studying how private money moves. The whole appeal is the exclusion, and the exclusion belongs to the person living there. So if a lender wants to fund someone's live-in flip, what is in it for the lender? The exclusion cannot be shared. A common suggestion is for the funder to be a partner on title and take half the profit. But then it is not the funder's primary residence, so that half gets taxed normally while the occupant's half is clean. Does that even work, or does having a partner on title mess up the occupant's side too? And what does a lender do when two people are on a loan and only one lives there?