Minimum down on every rung, or buy the payment down so each conversion carries itself?
I ran two owner-occupant structures against the same $340k house, three bed, 1990s, in a submarket where it rents for about $2,450 today. Quotes I was given last month, and rates and premium factors move, so treat them as an illustration and confirm current terms with your own lender.
Structure A, 3.5 percent down FHA. $11,900 down, roughly $333.8k financed after the upfront premium, principal and interest around $2,166, taxes and insurance $520, monthly premium around $153. Call it $2,839 all in. On this program the monthly premium may run for the life of the loan depending on the down payment, which is the trap in the loss thread further down the board.
Structure B, 10 percent down conventional. $34,000 down, $306k financed, principal and interest around $1,934, taxes and insurance $520, private mortgage insurance around $115 that's cancellable at an equity threshold. Call it $2,569.
So B costs $22,100 more cash at closing and $270 a month less, and the insurance eventually goes away. A converts at about negative $389 before reserves. B converts at about negative $119 before reserves and gets better when the insurance drops.
The case for A is that $22,100 is most of another down payment, and the financing advantage compounds by being used more times. The case for B is that a portfolio of negative conversions strains both your reserves and your ratios, and every rung after the second is a qualification problem where the vacated payment shows up in your file.
Where do you actually put the marginal dollar?
On each owner-occupant purchase in a live-in-then-rent sequence, where does the marginal dollar go?
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