After eight months at 4.35M and two low offers, the lender wants an answer and the diagnosis is not obvious.
Here is a scenario worth working through. A 5,900 sq ft luxury flip finished in late spring. Bought at 2.6M, all in at 3.68M including a scope overrun that is not worth relitigating. Listed at 4.45M on comps that supported 4.3 to 4.6. Cut to 4.35M at day 90. Nothing since. Where the operator stands now: 243 days on market, 12 showings total, 3 of those in the last 90 days. Two offers, 3.85M cash with a 10 day close, and 4.0M with a contingency on the buyer's own sale of a 2.9M house that has been listed 60 days. Carry is 26k a month all in. The loan matures in 47 days, an extension is available at a point plus a rate bump, and the term sheet is on the desk. The staging contract renews monthly at 7,400. So 3.85M cash nets maybe 3.63M after 5.5 percent and the credits any buyer at this level will ask for. That is about even, call it a small loss once the operator's own time is counted. The 4.0M contingent offer is nominally 130k better and might evaporate in 60 days, during which another 52k burns and the extension gets paid. A third option is another cut, to 4.15M, in the hope that the price break generates showings. A fourth is a rate and term refinance into something longer and renting it while waiting, though the rent a house like this commands is nowhere near 26k. The hard part is whether 12 showings in 8 months means the price is wrong or means there are simply three buyers in this market and the seller has met all of them. Those two diagnoses point in opposite directions. How would the room read it?