The appraisal came back 190k under contract on a 3.1M flip and the lender is now at 65 percent of the appraised number.
That gap is not abstract. If the contract was at 3.1M and the appraisal lands at 2.91M, a 65 percent loan against the appraised value puts the lender at 1.89M. If the original underwrite assumed 65 percent of contract price, that was 2.015M. The borrower now has to cover a 125k shortfall out of pocket at closing, on top of whatever the original equity requirement was, and that is before asking whether the buyer's financing has the same appraisal problem on their side. A 190k miss on a 3.1M asset is only six percent, which is well inside what a comp selection argument can move, so the first question is whether the appraisal is actually wrong or whether it priced the market correctly and the contract was optimistic. Those two situations call for completely different responses. If the comps support a challenge, a reconsideration of value with three tightly matched sales and a written argument about the appraiser's adjustments has moved numbers before, though it takes two to three weeks and the lender has to agree to wait. If the comps do not support a challenge, the borrower is looking at a capital call, a renegotiated contract with the buyer, or a hard conversation with the lender about a bridge to a different exit. What the appraisal said about the comparable sales it used, and whether those comps were arms-length or distressed, is the sentence that actually settles which path is worth chasing. Did the appraiser's grid show the adjustments for condition and finish, or did it treat the subject as equivalent to unrenovated sales?