A performing note at a 12 percent stated yield can still return 7 percent if the timing goes wrong
A note I keep turning over as a study case: face value 85,000, rate 8.5 percent, 22 years remaining, seller carrying it on a paid-down single-family. Buyer prices it at 68 cents, so 57,800 out of pocket, and the yield calculator hands back 12.1 percent to maturity. Clean pay history, no modifications, good collateral equity. The model looks tight.
The assumption doing all the weight in that number is time. Twelve percent to maturity only pays if the borrower runs to month 264. What the model does not show is what happens in the first 36 months, which is where performing notes most often leave the buyer's hands, whether by payoff, refinance, default, or a discounted sale to someone else.
Run the same note at month 18 payoff, borrower refinances at a local credit union, and the buyer collects 18 payments at the note rate plus gets face value back, not the discounted price. That sounds fine until you model the actual dollars: 18 payments on 85,000 at 8.5 percent come to roughly 13,200 in interest received, split between principal and interest by amortization, and the payoff returns the 85,000 face. Total in: approximately 85,000 plus about 8,400 of interest collected in 18 months. Total out was 57,800. Annualized return on that timeline sits around 17 percent, so early payoff actually helps here.
The scenario that hurts is a discounted sale at month 18 because the buyer needs liquidity. Now the buyer is the seller, and a new buyer prices it at the same 68 cents, which is 57,800 again, which is exactly what the first buyer paid. Eighteen months of payments received, less servicing, less any acquisition costs, and the exit price is the entry price. That annualizes to something close to the note coupon minus friction, call it 6 to 7 percent, not 12.
The rate stated in a performing note is not the yield to the buyer. The yield to the buyer depends on when the note leaves and at what price. Most pricing conversations stop at the first number and skip the exit scenario entirely.
What is your assumed hold when you price a performing note, and do you model a forced-sale exit alongside the maturity case?