Does a fund manager's preferred return structure change what an LP actually takes home after the step-up to FMV at year ten
Trying to get my head around this. I understand the appreciation is federally tax-free after a ten-year hold, but I keep getting stuck on how the waterfall eats into that before I see a dollar. If a fund has an 8% pref and then a 70/30 split above that, the GP is taking 30% of the appreciation I am not paying tax on. So my actual after-tax return is not the full step-up, it is whatever survives the waterfall. I have seen decks that headline the tax-free exit without saying anything about how much of that exit the manager keeps. I do not know if I am framing this wrong or if this is just how most LPs read it and nobody says it out loud. Specific example I am looking at right now has a 2022 close date, 8% pref, 70/30 carry above, and projects a 2.1x on contributed capital before the tax benefit. I want to know what a realistic LP multiple looks like after carry and after the deferred gain inclusion in 2026, not the number on the cover page.