The clean split is between a contractual extension and a discretionary one. Most bridge loans are written with one or two extension options the borrower can exercise by right if it clears defined tests, typically a debt yield or DSCR hurdle, a fee, and a purchase of a new rate cap. A loan extended under that mechanism is doing exactly what the credit agreement contemplated. A loan extended by amendment, because the borrower couldn't hit the test, is a different animal wearing the same clothes on the schedule. Both appear as "current maturity extended." Only the loan file tells you which happened, so ask the manager to break the fifteen into option exercises versus amendments and to say what test was waived in each amendment.
After that, three things worth pulling. Whether interest is being paid in cash or accruing, since a loan converted to PIK reads as performing while producing no cash. Whether the collateral was re-appraised or re-valued since origination and what the current as-is LTV is against the amended balance. Whether the fund advanced new dollars to fund the interest reserve for the extension period, which converts a credit problem into a bigger credit problem.
On the risk you haven't raised: check sponsor concentration inside those fifteen. If four of them are the same borrower or the same sponsor group, that's one credit decision, not four, and one bankruptcy filing moves all of them at once. Same question for vintage, because loans written at peak valuation and extended into a lower-valuation market share a single cause.
If it's an open-end fund, extended loans held at par also inflate NAV, which matters to whoever redeems ahead of you.