Buyer says he'll take 8 a year at 70% ARV minus repairs. What breaks first if I actually try to fill that?
I fund deals rather than do them, and I want to understand this model from the buyer's chair before I ever write a check to someone running it.
A wholesaler I've been talking to has a written buy box from a small fund: single family, 1,100 to 1,900 sq ft, built 1965 or later, purchase at 70% of ARV less repair estimate, eight properties a year, assignment fee of 6k baked in above their number. He treats the eight as demand that exists.
My problem is that the fund's number moves. If their cost of capital shifts or their exit assumptions tighten, 70% becomes 66% and the wholesaler's whole pipeline is suddenly priced wrong. So how much of the dead-deal risk is actually removed here, versus moved from "no buyer" to "buyer at a price that no longer clears"? Has anyone seen a way to pin the price side down and not just the volume side?