Can a buyer actually assume my existing mortgage rate when I sell fast
I have been sitting with this question on the duplex in Ohio because one of the tenants asked me, very casually, whether she could just take over the loan when I decide to sell. She has been there eight years. She pays on time. And I understand why she asked, because the rate my aunt locked in is better than anything available right now. What I have figured out so far is that most conventional loans have a due-on-sale clause, which means the lender can call the whole balance due the moment title transfers. So the tenant assuming the existing rate is not really a thing I can offer her, even if I wanted to. FHA and VA loans are different, those can be assumed under certain conditions, but my aunt's loan is not either of those. The only way I could give a buyer something close to that rate is to carry the financing myself, which means I become the lender, she pays me, and I either pay off the underlying mortgage at closing or wrap it, which gets complicated fast and carries its own legal exposure depending on Ohio law. A quick sale makes it harder because wrapping a loan with a due-on-sale clause in the middle of a fast close is exactly the situation where things go wrong if anyone looks closely. I am not at the point of deciding anything yet, I am still on the page-at-a-time plan, but I wanted to put this out there because I suspect a lot of people think assumption is simpler than it actually is.