A fourplex at 620k against a passive position. The occupancy year won't pencil.
I've been putting money into other people's deals for three years and I'm looking at buying something myself for the first time, mostly because I want the residential financing that goes away at five units.
The property. Fourplex, 620,000 asking, built 1974, four 2-bed 1-bath units, all occupied. Rent roll shows 1,475, 1,450, 1,425 and 1,450, so 5,800 a month, 69,600 gross. Separate electric, one gas boiler, owner pays water, sewer and trash. Seller's numbers show taxes 7,900, insurance 4,100, water and sewer 3,600, and 4,000 of maintenance which I don't believe for a second.
My underwriting. 5 percent vacancy, 8 percent management even though I'd self-manage at first, 6 percent maintenance, 4 percent capex reserve. That lands me around 38 percent total operating expense ratio and an NOI near 41,000, so a 6.6 cap on ask. That sits inside the range I've read for this asset class, which is roughly 6 to 7.2, so I'm not being handed a gift and I'm not being robbed.
The financing fork is the actual question. If I occupy one unit I can look at a low-down-payment residential loan, but I lose 1,450 of rent for a year and I have to actually live there. If I don't occupy, I'm looking at an investor loan with 25 percent down and a rate that was quoted to me about 130 basis points higher.
On the occupancy path the building is cash flow negative to me by maybe 400 a month for that first year, and roughly breakeven to slightly positive after I move out, assuming the fourth unit re-rents at 1,475. On the investor path I'm putting 155,000 down for something that spits off less than the passive positions I already hold.
So the whole case rests on the year of occupancy buying me a lower rate and a much smaller down payment, and I'm holding that against a year of living in a 1974 building I own. What breaks in this that I'm not seeing.