Is a wholesale fee a buy signal or a tell that the wholesaler overpaid
A pattern worth working through. Say a buyer with capital keeps getting sent deals where the wholesaler wants $18,000 to $24,000 on top of a $310,000 to $340,000 acquisition range in South Jersey. The comps the wholesaler sends support an ARV around $420,000, which looks fine on paper until the buyer pulls his own sales and lands closer to $395,000, sometimes $388,000 on the slower stuff. At $388,000 ARV with a 70 percent rule the maximum all-in is $271,600. Take out $45,000 in rehab, which is what reliable contractors quote on these, and the buyer is at $226,600 before the assignment fee. Every one of these deals arrives at $310,000 plus the fee, so the gap is $100,000 before anyone argues about carrying costs. The buyer is not stretched waiting on financing, so this is not a borrowing problem. The deals just do not work at what is being asked. The real question is whether the fee itself is the tell. If a wholesaler needs $20,000 out of a deal to make it worth their time, did they buy it right in the first place, or are they passing a bad purchase along with a margin on top? Direct to seller opportunities in the same price range, with no fee attached, often do pencil. So is a wholesale fee in this market structurally incompatible with the numbers, or are the operators sending these deals simply the ones who overpaid?