My accountant said something Thursday that I have not been able to shake
She was looking at the K-1s from two of my syndications and said, okay but where does the interest actually land when the deal is structured as a wrap, because the payor's interest deduction and the payee's interest income are sitting on two different instruments at two different rates and she has seen operators get that wrong on the books in ways that flow straight through to the passive investor's return. I am not in any wraps right now but I have been looking at one as a note buyer, a $340,000 wrap on a property in Tucson, underlying at 4.1 percent, wrap note at 7.25, originated 19 months ago, and now I am sitting here wondering whether whoever is handling the accounting on that deal has actually separated those two streams or just netted them. The spread looks clean from the outside. I want to know what the K-1 would say.