On a $95k rural house, who ends up paying the buyer's agent fee
Consider two houses in a county of about 12,000 people, both listed in the low $90s. 2.5% on one of them is $2,375, while a strong agent working that area might carry a $6,000 minimum in her agreement, which isn't unreasonable given the driving required out there. There are two common ways to get her paid. Path one: write the offer with a request that the seller contribute toward buyer agent compensation. That contribution isn't automatic anymore, it's simply another negotiated term. If the seller agrees, out of pocket cash at closing stays small. But the contribution effectively comes out of the seller's net, so the buyer typically has to bid closer to full ask, raising the basis, and on a $92k house with a thin comp set the appraisal has to support that number. Sellers in these markets are often estates and retirees who think in net dollars, and some will simply hear a lower offer and take it personally. Path two: the buyer pays the $6,000 fee directly at closing and writes the offer $6,000 lower. Cleaner, with no lender concession caps to navigate and no appraisal stretch. It's also $6,000 of cash that doesn't get financed, which on a small deal is meaningful. Both paths have a real case behind them, and the right one tends to depend on how thin the local comp set is and how the seller thinks about net proceeds.
On a sub-$100k purchase, how should the buyer agent fee get handled?
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