Senior lender funds rehab in arrears and I'm 30k short on float
Closing a 3/1 in a working class suburb next week. Purchase 168k, rehab budget 52k, ARV I'm underwriting at 285k. My hard money lender does 85% of purchase and 100% of rehab, but rehab comes as draws in arrears, meaning I pay the subs first and get reimbursed 5 to 8 business days after inspection.
So on paper I'm fully funded. In practice I need about 30k of working capital sitting there to keep the crew paid between draws, and I have maybe 9k after closing costs.
A guy who has funded two of my deals before offered 30k at 12% interest only, 3 points up front, 6 month term. He wants it recorded as a second against the property. That is where I stalled. My senior loan docs have a clause saying no additional liens on the collateral without written consent, and my loan officer hasn't answered me on whether they'll consent. The alternative the funder floated is an unsecured note to me personally, same rate, and he said he'd want a personal guarantee and my other property listed as collateral instead.
What I have: the draw schedule, the senior term sheet, a contractor who wants 40% of his money in the first three weeks.
What I don't know: whether asking my senior lender for consent puts the whole approval at risk, and whether swapping to an unsecured note with my rental pledged is actually cheaper risk for me or just moves it somewhere I can see it less. Cost of the 30k either way is roughly 900 in points plus about 1,800 of interest if I'm out six months, which the deal can carry. The structure question is the one I can't settle.