Minimum down on the fourplex or 10% and a payment that actually works
Working two versions of the same deal and I can't decide which one I'd actually sign.
$540k fourplex, three 2/1s and one 1/1, market rents on the three I'd be renting come to about $4,050 combined at current lease comps in that pocket. My lender quoted FHA at 3.5% down, so roughly $19k in and a payment around $4,350 with taxes, insurance and mortgage insurance folded in. Same lender quoted a conventional owner-occupied option at 10% down, $54k in, payment lands near $3,760 with no monthly MI. Numbers are indicative and I'm getting both in writing before I do anything.
Version A leaves me with about $60k in the bank after closing and a payment gap of roughly $300/month that I cover out of pocket, before any vacancy. Version B leaves me with about $25k and puts me about $290/month ahead on paper, which vacancy and turnover will eat some months.
The argument for A is that the cash is the actual asset on a 40-year-old building and the payment gap is small enough to absorb from wages. The argument for B is that the payment is the thing you have to survive every month for years, and the monthly MI on the FHA path may not come off without a refinance I can't price today.
What I keep circling is that both answers are defensible and the deciding assumption is how much unplanned capex I think the building throws at me in the first 24 months. I don't have a good number for that. Curious how people who've held small multifamily through a bad year actually deployed the cash.
On a 2-4 unit owner-occupied house hack, where does the cash go?
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