Same 1.5M of equity: one box unlevered, two boxes at 50 percent, or a fractional interest. The spreads came out closer than I expected
I ran this three ways this month because a client keeps insisting the answer is obvious and I don't think it is.
Start with 1.5M of equity and no strong view on rates.
A. One 1.5M single tenant box, unlevered. Non-rated regional operator, roughly 300 units behind the guaranty, 7.1 cap, 12 years of term, 1.5 percent annual bumps. Cash yield 7.1, no debt maturity, no coverage covenant, and one tenant.
B. Two 1.5M boxes, 50 percent debt on each. Investment grade tenant on one, the same non-rated operator on the other, blended 6.6 cap. With debt in the mid sixes on a five year term, quoted terms change constantly so confirm what your lender will actually paper, the cash-on-cash lands close to A. Two tenants, two states, staggered expirations, and two balloons.
C. A fractional interest in a larger net lease asset, or a listed net lease position. Twenty tenants instead of one, real liquidity in the listed case, and I give up all control over hold period and refinancing. Yield lower, call it low sixes.
On a base case they're within maybe 60 basis points of each other. They diverge violently in the downside case, and that's where I want other people's reasoning. What breaks first in each?
1.5M of equity into net lease. Where does it go?
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