The acceleration language in this wrap note draft works backwards
Not doing a deal. Somebody in a local group shared an anonymized wrap note and deed of trust package as a teaching example and I've been going through it clause by clause, which is how I learn things.
Setup in the document: underlying loan 268k at 3.75%, wrap note 445k at 7%, 30 year amortization on both, seller retains obligation on the underlying.
The clause I can't reconcile. Section 9 says the wrap note accelerates in full upon any default by the maker, standard enough. Section 11 says that if the holder (the seller) fails to make payments on the underlying obligation, the maker (the buyer) may cure directly and offset amounts paid against the wrap note. Also sensible. But Section 11 offsets against "amounts next due" and Section 9 accelerates the whole balance on default.
So if the seller stops paying the underlying, and the buyer pays the underlying directly, and then withholds the wrap payment because it's been offset, does Section 9 fire? The buyer has withheld a payment. The document doesn't say that a Section 11 cure is not a Section 9 default. It just assumes it.
Second thing. There's no provision requiring the seller to prove the underlying got paid. The buyer would only discover a problem by receiving a notice of default from a lender they have no relationship with, which by then means 90 days of missed payments and fees on a loan senior to their own interest.
Third thing, and I'm least sure here. The wrap note is 445k. The underlying is 268k. If the buyer defaults and the seller forecloses, the seller recovers the property subject to the underlying, which is fine. But what if the seller defaults on the underlying and it forecloses? The buyer's interest is junior to that lien. Does the buyer's equity in the 177k gap just evaporate? Foreclosure and redemption rules differ by state so I assume the answer changes depending on where you are.
What I'd want to know from people who've seen real ones: is the Section 9 / Section 11 gap normal sloppiness in these documents, or was this sample written badly? And is a collection escrow the standard answer to my second point, or do people actually rely on the seller's word?