First subject-to offered to me. Half the paperwork is new.
This has been theory for me for months and now an actual one has shown up, which is not the order I wanted things to happen in.
The seller is a coworker's brother-in-law. Divorce, needs out, doesn't want to list because he doesn't want strangers in the house while his kids are still there. Numbers he gave me, which I have partly verified against a payoff statement and partly not:
Value 285,000, based on three sales within half a mile in the last eight months. Loan balance 206,400 at 3.125%, 27 years remaining. PITI 1,480, of which principal and interest is 884, taxes 421, insurance 175. He's current, never missed. He wants 26,000 cash for his equity and to be out in 45 days. Market rent for the house is 2,000 to 2,100. I have 61,000 liquid and no other rentals.
What I think I understand: I'd get the deed, his loan stays in his name, I make the payments, I keep the 3.125%. On a 2,050 rent against 1,480 payment I'm at 570 a month before management, maintenance and vacancy, which I'd reserve at maybe 380 combined, so call it 190 real.
What I don't understand, in order:
- The due-on-sale clause. Everything I read says the lender can call the loan and also that they basically never do. Both of those can't be the operating assumption.
- How the payment physically gets made every month so that it's provable years later.
- Whose insurance policy, and does changing it tell the lender something.
- What documents actually exist in one of these beyond a deed.
- Whether a person with zero rentals should be doing this as deal number one at all.
26,000 out of 61,000 leaves me 35,000, which feels like enough until I imagine the lender sending a letter. I have not made him an offer and I have not told him I'm nervous.