A sample term sheet says the gap loan is secured by a second lien, then says the decision came down to the exit. Which one is doing the work?
I've been reading a gap funding term sheet that a lender publishes as an example, and two lines on the same page seem to point in different directions. One says the loan is secured by a junior lien on the property plus a personal guarantee. The next paragraph says approval depended mainly on the borrower's exit, meaning the refinance or the sale that pays the loan off.
As someone still learning, I can build the case both ways.
The case for the collateral: if the deal goes wrong, the lien is what you actually have. You can total up the senior loan, your loan, and selling costs, compare it to what the property is worth finished, and see how far the value can fall before your money is gone. That number exists whether or not the borrower is any good.
The case for the exit: gap and bridge money is short. Nobody funding six months wants to end up owning a half finished building behind a senior lender. If the refinance appraises and closes, the collateral never mattered. If it doesn't, being in second position means the senior collects first and the cushion you calculated gets eaten by delay and fees.
There's a third answer I've seen people give, which is that the senior lender's documents decide everything, because they set what a junior lender is allowed to do when things slip.
So I'm curious where this room actually lands. Not what a lender says in marketing, what you'd look at first with your own 30k.
You're putting 30k into a gap position behind a senior loan. What do you underwrite hardest?
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