Asked to fund a $58k second behind a $172k first, borrower is a GC I've worked with for years
I sold my share of a mechanical outfit last year and have 140k sitting in a money market. A GC I subbed alongside for six years called me about a flip he's got under contract and asked me to fund the gap.
The deal as he presents it: purchase 152, rehab 58, ARV 298. He has a hard money commitment for 75 percent of purchase, so 114 at close, plus 100 percent of rehab in draws, total exposure up to 172. 11.5 percent and 2 points, 9 month term, interest only. He needs 38 for the down payment plus about 20 for closing, carry, and cushion. That's my 58. He's offering 14 percent and 1 point, 9 months, secured by a second deed of trust, and he'll sign personally.
At completion total debt is 230 against 298, so 77 percent. His projected profit after selling costs and carry is somewhere around 30k, which is thinner than he says it is once I add the interest properly.
What I'm sure about: I know how to read his scope. I walked the house. The 58 rehab is honest for the work he described, maybe 6k light on the electrical service.
What I'm not sure about: everything else. Second position mechanics, what my documents need to say, what I do on day 91 of no payments, whether the fact that I'd be foreclosing on someone I still get referrals from makes this a bad idea regardless of the numbers. My alternative is holding cash and waiting until I can fund a first position on something cheaper by myself.
So, 58 into the second, or wait. I keep going back and forth and I'd rather hear the objections now than after I wire.