Both doctors in a small clinic building are past sixty, and the lease has eight years left with two five-year options.
At first glance that looks like tenure. Two physicians, long relationship with the building, options that carry the income well past any near-term hold. The assumption doing the most work is that the options get exercised, and that assumption rests entirely on whether these two are still practicing when the base term ends. If both are 62 today, they are 70 at lease expiration. Retirement, a health event, or a practice sale to a system that already owns its own space are not tail risks here, they are the base case in a realistic underwriting. The options mean nothing if the tenant has wound down or consolidated before they vest. What I would want to know is whether either physician has brought in a younger associate in the last three years, because that is the one observable signal that succession is actually being built rather than deferred. A two-doctor practice with no associate and no announced affiliation is, functionally, a seven-or-eight-year hold with a hard stop, and the exit cap on that asset at year eight should reflect vacant medical office, not stabilized clinical space, because the next buyer will price it the same way. The going-in cap that makes this pencil has to be wide enough to absorb that exit scenario without the options. So I would ask: is there any language in the lease about assignment in the event of a practice sale, and has the seller disclosed whether either physician has had any system acquisition conversations?